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Let $x = (x_{0}, \ldots, x_{n})$ and $y = (y_{0}, \ldots, y_{n})$ be two vectors, and $d = (d_{0} = x_{0} - y_{0}, \ldots, d_{n} = x_{n} - y_{n})$ their element-wise euclidean distances.

My question is, that is it possible to construct (invertible) projections $p, q$ so that the element-wise euclidean distances for $p(x), q(y)$ would be all equal, i.e. $d_{0}=d_{1}=\dots=d_{n}$?

I quess making $x$ and $y$ orthogonal would give a good start?

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What do you mean by 'their element-wise euclidean distances'? $\|x-y\|$ usually means the norm, which is a scalar. – copper.hat Mar 22 at 17:08
Sorry, my question was badly placed. I have now updated it. Is it now easier to follow? Sorry for bad english – math-is-difficult Mar 22 at 17:18
Are $x,y$ vectors of vextors? – copper.hat Mar 22 at 17:23
I guess I can start with $x_i, y_i$ being scalars. Sorry for all the notation trouble. Updated the question again – math-is-difficult Mar 22 at 17:29
What is an "invertible projections"? Unless the word "projection" is meant in some different sense than it tends to be in linear algebra, the only invertible projection is the identity map... – darij grinberg Mar 28 at 0:49

1 Answer

If for invertible projection you mean just an ivertible linear map $p$ such that $p^2=p$ then the answer is yes. If $x$ and $y$ are 0 then the identity map works. Assume that $\| x\|\leq\|y\|\neq 0$. Take $p=Id$. Let $D$ be the line $\mathbb{R}(1,\ldots,1)$. Take $y'\in x+D$ such that $\|y'\|=\|y\|$. It is easy to construct an invertible projection $q$ such that $q(y)=y'$. Then $p(x)=x$ and $q(y)=y'\in x+D$ and so their difference lies in $D$.

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