So for such $x,y\neq 0$, you want to show $x\otimes y=y\otimes x$ in $V\otimes_F V$ if $x=ay$ for some $a\in F$.
Then $x\otimes y=ay\otimes y=y\otimes ay=y\otimes x$.
Since this seems by far to be the easier half of the problem, I am beginning to wonder if you meant to ask about the other direction.
Suppose $x,y$ are linearly independent. As such, this pair can be extended with other elements of $V$ to form a basis $\beta$ of $V$. We know that given a basis $\{b_i\mid i\in I\}$ for $V$, we automatically have a basis $\{b_i\otimes b_j\mid i,j\in I\}$ for $V\otimes_F V$.
Applying this to our basis $\beta$, we have that $x\otimes y$ and $y\otimes x$ are linearly independent elements of a basis of $V\otimes_F V$, and so certainly $x\otimes y\neq y\otimes x$.
By proving the contrapositive, we've shown that if $x\otimes y=y\otimes x$, then $x,y$ are linearly dependent, hence $x=ay$ for some $a\in F$.