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I have $X_1, \ldots, X_n$ random variables independent and identically distributed with probability density function $p_X$. I want to compute the probability density function for the random variable $Z = \min\{f(X_1), \ldots, f(X_n)\}$. Let $Y_i = f(X_i)$, then if I assume that $f$ is monotone I can compute $p_Y$ as:

\begin{equation} p_Y(y) = p_X(f^{-1}(y))\left|\frac{d}{dy}(f^{-1}(y))\right|. \end{equation}

I can then compute the cumulative distribution function $F_Z$ as:

\begin{equation} F_Z(z) = P(Z\leq z) = P(\min\{Y_1,\ldots,Y_n\}\leq z) = 1-P((Y_1>z)\wedge\ldots\wedge (Y_n>z)) = \\ 1-P(Y_1>z)\ldots P(Y_n>z) = 1-(1-F_Y(z))^n. \end{equation}

Finally for the probability density function $p_Z$ I get:

\begin{equation} p_Z(z) = \frac{d}{dz}F_Z(z) = (n-1)(1-F_Y(z))^{n-1}p_Y(z) = (n-1)(1-F_Y(z))^{n-1}p_X(f^{-1}(z))\left|\frac{d}{dy}(f^{-1}(z))\right|. \end{equation}

First of all is the logic above correct? Can I extend the above to using a probability mass function? To me it looks like that in that case the identity would be as simples as: $p_Y(y) = p_X(f^{-1}(y))$. I believe the rest will remain the same? What if I allow $f$ to be non-monotone and potentially non-invertible?

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Yes the logic is correct.

If $X$ is discrete (i.e., it has a probability mass function) and $Y = f(X)$ then the PMF of $Y$ is $$P(Y=y) = \sum_{x \in f^{-1}(\{y \})} P(X=x)$$ where $f^{-1}(\{y\})$ is the set of points that $f$ maps to $y$ (if there are no such points then the probability is $0$). When $f$ is invertible then $f^{-1}(\{y\})$ is a single point and is equal to your definition of $p_Y$. See Casella and Berger chapter 3.1 for more details.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. This makes perfect sense too, since if several points get mapped to one (i.e. become indistinguishable) then the probabilities must be summed. Is there analogy to this for the continuous setting? There I seem to require monotonicity in order to get $P(Y>z) = P(f(X)>z) = P(X>f^{-1}(z))$, and while I can imagine that I can do a similar thing for a piecewise monotonic function, is there a generalization that works in general? For example if I have a whole interval $[a,b]$ that gets mapped to a single point. Would I just get an integral for the probability there, e.g. a Dirac delta? $\endgroup$
    – lightxbulb
    Commented Aug 28, 2022 at 0:20
  • $\begingroup$ There seems to be a general formula for the continuous case here, go to the section "Functions of random variables..." But you may need to be careful because if $f$ maps intervals to points then $Y$ no longer has a density. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2022 at 0:30
  • $\begingroup$ I can't find them covering this degenerate case. On the other hand my intuition is that it should be possible. For example if I have $Y = f(x)$ where $f(x) = 0, x < 0$ and $f(x) = 1, x \geq 0$ then my guess would be that the probability would be $P(Y=0)= \int_{-\infty}^0p_X(x)\,dx$ and $P(Y=1)=\int_{0}^{\infty}p_X(x)\,dx$. I haven't seen this in any books though, so I am not sure whether I am doing a probability crime. At the very least it makes sense to me. $\endgroup$
    – lightxbulb
    Commented Aug 28, 2022 at 0:49

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